In section 3, it says:
If no statement has been filed with the IETF about a term or phrase
that is marked in a contribution as a trademark or service mark it
is reasonable to assume that references to the term or phrase in
product text, documentation and advertising material is permitted
but that using the term or phrase as the name of a product requires
permission from the holder of the mark.
That paragraph seem unfinished to me. "Reasonable" to whom? The
suggested interpretation is not binding for anyone, nor is it the only
interpretation. At worst, this appear to permit abusive or
discriminatory behavior wrt trademarks.